PHÒNG GD & ĐT THANH OAI TRƯỜNG THCS THANH THÙY

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024      Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

                                   (Đề kiểm tra này gồm 04 trang, học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)
 

Điểm bài thi		Họ và tên thí sinh; Lớp	Giám thị
Bằng số	Bằng chữ

A. LISTENING (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)
Listen to the tape and fill in the blanks with ONE word in the box.

neighbour       beautiful       has       take       name        of        in        front        blue         water

My Flower Garden
My (1) …………………………….…. is Anne. 
I love flowers  I have a flower garden. 
My garden is in (2) …………………………….…. of my house. 
My (3) …………………………….…. has a garden, too. 
My garden has different types (4) …………………………….…. flowers. 
I have roses in my garden.  I have tulips in my garden. 
I have petunias (5) …………………………….…. my garden. 
My garden (6) …………………………….…. different colours. 
I plant red flowers. 
I plant orange flowers. I plant (7) …………………………….…. flowers. 
I plant purple flowers. I (8) …………………………….…. care of my garden. 
I (9) …………………………….…. my garden every day. 
I kill the weeds in my garden.  I kill insects that eat my flowers. 
I love my (10) …………………………….…. garden.

B. PHONETICS (1.0 pt)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:  (3 0.2 = 0.6 point)

11.	A. summer	B. hunger	C. drunk	D. population
12.	A. excited	B. interested	C. answered	D. painted
13.	A. dangerous	B. documentary	C. energy	D. celebrate

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the possition of stress in each of the following questions:  (2 0.2 = 0.4 point)

14.	A. circle	B. affect	C. direct	D. perform
15.	A. regular	B. collector	C. horrible	D. wonderful

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS (3.0 pts)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:
                                                          (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)
16. My younger brother …………… absent from school yesterday because he was ill.
            A. will be                   B. is                            C. was                        D. were
17. These are your books and the books on the teacher’s desk are ……………
            A. me                          B. my                          C. mine                      D. myself
18. My parents …………… me a box of chocolate when I was young.
            A. use to give            B. used to give          C. used give               D. used gave
19. My mother prefers reading …………… TV.
            A. watching               B. to watching           C. from watched       D. to watch
20. Christopher Columbus _______ American more than 500 years ago.
            A. discovered            B. has discovered    C. had discovered       D. is discovering
21.  She is very kind and friendly …………… her twin sister isn’t.
            A. but                         B. because                 C. so                           D. and
22. The doctor says that most children should …………… part in outdoor activities.
            A. have                      B. take                        C. get                          D. come
23. Living in the city is …………… living in the country.
            A. expensiver than   B. more expensive C. the most expensive D. more expensive than
 
24. Internet is a wonderful ……………. of the modern life.
            A. invent                    B. inventing              C. invention              D. inventor
25. There were vegetables, bread, fruit and a large ……………
            A. bowl of soup        B. bowls of soups     C. bowl of soups      D. bowls of soup

II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets:  (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
26. No one (want) ………………..…… to sit in his car because he always drives very carelessly
27. Peter used (drive) ………………..…… to work years ago but now he doesn’t.
28. I (take) ………………..…… to school by my father every day.
29. The floor (clean) ………………..…… by my brother at the moment.
30. How often you (visit) ………………..…… your grandmother? Every weekend.

D. READING: (2.0 pts)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions: (5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
    Happy memories of my childhood.
I always count myself lucky that I spent my childhood with my parents in the countryside. When I was small, our family used to live in a small house near a river. My brother and I used to go swimming after school until my mother told us to come back. Our school was not far from our house, so we walked to school every day. There didn’t use to be as many traffic as there is today, so my parents didn’t worry much about traffic accident. In the past, there didn’t use to be many forms of entertainment such as TV or computer, so our family spent many hours with each other. Sometimes, my brother and I were taken to our grandparents’ house to visit them. Those memories are unforgettable.
31. Where did you spend your childhood with your parents?
    -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
32. Where did youy brother and you use to go swimming after school?
    -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
33. Did your parents worry much about traffic accident?
    -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
34. How long did your family spend with each other?
    -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
35. Why were you and your brother sometimes taken to your grandparents’ house?
    -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

E. WRITING: (2.0 pts)
 Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
(5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
36. Children didn’t play with high-tech devices at an early age but now they do.
    -> Children didn’t use ……………………………………………………………………………….
37. UNESCO regarded Ha Long Bay as a World Heritage Site in 1994.
    -> Ha Long Bay ……………………………….………………………….………………………….
38. Mr. Tom Baker couldn't sleep although they were quite tired.
    -> Mr. Tom Baker couldn't sleep in spite….…………………………………………………..…….
39. My grandparents brought me up in a small town.
    -> I ……………………………………………………………………………….………………….
40. My sister started learning English two years ago.
    -> My sister has …………………………………………………………………….……………….
 
--- The end ---




















 

PHÒNG GD & ĐT HUYỆN THANH OAI TRƯỜNG THCS THANH THÙY

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024

A. LISTENING (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)
Listen to the recording and fill in the blanks with ONE word in the box.

1. name	2. front	3. neighbour	4. of	5. in
6. has	7. blue	8. take	9. water	10. beautiful

B. PHONETICS (1.0 pt)
  I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:  (3 0.2 = 0.6 point)

11.				D. population
12.			C. answered
13.	A. dangerous

  II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the possition of stress in each of the following questions:  (2 0.2 = 0.4 point)

14.	A. circle
15.		B. collector

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS (3.0 pts)
  I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:
                                                          (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)

16. C. was	17. C. mine	18. B. used to give	19. B. to watching	20. A. discovered
21. A. but	22. B. take	23. D. more expensive than	24. C. invention	25. A. bowl of soup

  II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets:  (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)

26. wants

27. to drive

28. am taken

29. is being cleaned

30. do … visit

D. READING: (2.0 pts)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions: (5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
31. I spent my childhood with my parents in the countryside.
32. My brother and I used to go swimming after school.
33. No, they didn’t.
34. Our family spent many hours with each other.
35. Sometimes, my brother and I were taken to our grandparents’ house to visit them.
E. WRITING: (2.0 pts)
 Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
(5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
36. Children didn’t use to play with high-tech devices (at an early age).
37. Ha Long Bay was regarded as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1994.
38. Mr. Tom Baker couldn't sleep in spite of being quite tired.
39. I was brought up in a small town.
40. My sister has learnt English for two years.
--- The end ---